206 Management Information Systems | MBA MCQs | SPPU

CHAPTER 1 –

Management Information Systems: Need, Purpose and Objectives - Data, Information, Knowledge – Types of Information Systems - Information as a strategic resource - Use of information for competitive advantage

Information Technology Infrastructure: Information Systems Architecture – Mainframe, Client Server, Web Based, Distributed, Grid, Cloud - Overview of Hardware, Software, Storage and Networking Devices – Networks Types - Topologies of Networks

Management Information Systems| Chapter 1 | Part 1

Management Information Systems| Chapter 1 | Part 2

1. The department in charge of recording all financial activity is the __________ department.

a. human resources

b. accounting

c. marketing

d. production

2. Which department actually creates the finished goods?

a. marketing

b. research

c. human resources

d. production

3. The __________ department handles all aspects of promotion.

a. research

b. marketing

c. production

d. accounting

4. This management level is responsible for monitoring the day-to-day events in an organization and taking any required corrective action.

a. supervisory

b. middle-managerial

c. stockholder

d. top-managerial

5. This management level deal with control, planning and decision making.

a. supervisory

b. middle-managerial

c. stockholder

d. top-managerial

6. This management level is concerned with long-range planning for the organization.

a. supervisory

b. middle-managerial

c. stockholder

d. top-managerial

7. Top managerial-level information flow is vertical, horizontal, and

a. diagonal

b. multidimensional

c. ethereal

d. external

8. This level of management require summarized information in capsule form to reveal the overall condition of the business.

a. top management

b. middle management

c. supervisors

d. stockholders

9. This level of management need access to information from outside the organization.

a. top management

b. middle management

c. supervisors

d. stockholders

10. This level of management need summarized information such as weekly or monthly reports.

a. top management

b. middle management

c. supervisors

d. stockholders

11. These systems (__________) record day-to-day transactions such as customer orders, bills, inventory levels, and production output.

a. TPS

b. MIS

c. DSS

d.ESS

12. These systems (__________) summarize the detailed data of the transaction processing systems in standard reports for middle-level managers.

a. CSS

b. MIS

c. DSS

d. ESS

13. Management Information Systems are used by

a. employee-level workers

b. middle management

c. supervisor-level management

d. top-level management

14. These systems (__________) present information in a very highly summarized form.

a. TPS

b. MIS

c. DSS

d. ESS

15. These systems (__________) help top-level managers oversee the company’s operations and develop strategic plans.

a. TPS

b. MIS

c. DSS

d. ESS

16. The __________ activity records the customer requests for goods or services.

a. payroll

b. sales order processing

c. inventory

g. general ledger

Answer: B

17. Money collected from or owed by customers is

a. accounts payable

b. inventory

c. accounts receivable

d. sales order processing

18. The __________ control system keeps records of the number of each kind of part or finished good in the warehouse.

a. payroll

b. inventory

c. sales order processing

d. general ledger

19. The buying of goods and services is referred to as

a. sales order processing

b. accounts receivable

c. inventory

d. purchasing

20. The money that the company owes for goods or services is handled by

a. accounts receivable

b. inventory

c. sales order processing

d. accounts payable

21. The __________ activity is concerned with calculating employees’ paychecks.

a. payroll

b. general ledger

c. accounts payable

d. sales order processing

22. The __________ is the summary of all foregoing transactions.

a. inventory

b. general ledger

c. sales order processing

d. accounts payable

23. The __________ shows a company’s financial performance.

a. general ledger

b. balance sheet

c. income statement

d. statement of cash flows

24. The overall financial condition of the organization is listed in the

a. income statement

b. profit and loss statement

c. balance sheet

d. statement of cash flows

25. Management information systems produce reports that are

a. predetermined

b. encrypted

c. graphically simplified

d. dynamic

26. __________ reports are produced at regular intervals.

a. Management

b. Periodic

c. Exception

d. Demand

27. When sales reports are combined into monthly reports for the regional sales manager, they are said to be

a. management reports

b. periodic reports

c. exception reports

d. demand reports

28. A sales report that shows that certain items are selling significantly above or below marketing department forecasts is an example of this type of report.

a. periodic

b. demand

c. inventory

d. exception

29. These types of systems would most likely be used to assist a manager in getting answers to unexpected and generally nonrecurring kinds of problems.

a. TPS

b. MIS

c. DSS

d. ESS

30. Which of the following refers to a decision-making support system for teams?

a. TPS

b. GDSS

c. ESS

d. MIS

31. In a GDSS, the __________ is generally a decision-maker.

a. programmer

b. technician

c. user

d. client

32. The basic information that makes up a GDSS is called the

a. system software

b. user

c. decision model

d. data

33. Data from within the organization consist principally of transactions from the

a. TPS

b. MIS

c. ESS

d. accounts receivable

34. This management level control the work of the organization, such as financial planning and sales promotion planning.

a. strategic level managers

b. corporate stock holders

c. tactical level mangers

d. operational level managers

35. This management level are responsible for accomplishing the organization’s day-to-day activities.

a. strategic level managers

b. corporate stock holders

c. tactical level mangers

d. operational level managers

36. Which component gives a GDSS its decision-making capabilities?

a. user

b. data

c. decision model

d. system software

37. These systems permit a firm’s top executives to gain direct access to information about the company’s performance.

a. TPS

b. MIS

c. ESS

d. DSS

38. These systems often present summary information in graphical format.

a. TPS

b. DSS

c. MIS

d. ESS

39. __________ workers distribute, communicate, and create information.

a. White collar

b. Data mine

c. Information

d. Organization

40. Employees involved with the distribution and communication of information are called

a. managers

b. data workers

c. IT staff

d. knowledge workers

41. Employees who create information are called

a. managers

b. data workers

c. IT staff

d. knowledge workers

42. __________ systems focus on managing documents, communicating, and scheduling.

a. Office automation

b. Transaction processing

c. Knowledge work

d. Executive support

43. These systems are computer systems that allow people located at various locations to communicate and have in-person meetings.

a. project managers

b. videoconferencing

c. telemarketing

d. data conferencing

44. Which of the following is an example of a knowledge work system?

a. project manager

b. Web server

c. Videoconferencing system

d. CAD/CAM

45. CAD/CAM would be most useful in what industry?

a. motion picture

b. automobile manufacturing

c. food service

d. retail

46. Information is

a. Data

b. Processed Data

c. Manipulated input

d. Computer output

47. Data by itself is not useful unless

a. It is massive

b. It is processed to obtain information

c. It is collected from diverse sources

d. It is properly stated

48. For taking decisions data must be

a. Very accurate

b. Massive

c. Processed correctly

d. Collected from diverse sources

49. Strategic information is needed for

a. Day to day operations

b. Meet government requirements

c. Long range planning

d. Short range planning

50. Strategic information is required by

a. Middle managers

b. Line managers

c. Top managers

d. All workers

51. Tactical information is needed for

a. Day to day operations

b. Meet government requirements

c. Long range planning

d. Short range planning

52. Tactical information is required by

a. Middle managers

b. Line managers

c. Top managers

d. All workers

53. Operational information is needed for

a. Day to day operations

b. Meet government requirements

c. Long range planning

d. Short range planning

54. Operational information is required by

a. Middle managers

b. Line managers

c. Top managers

d. All workers

55. Statutory information is needed for

a. Day to day operations

b. Meet government requirements

c. Long range planning

d. Short range planning

56. In motor car manufacturing the following type of information is strategic

a. Decision on introducing a new model

b. Scheduling production

c. Assessing competitor car

d. Computing sales tax collected

57. In motor car manufacturing the following type of information is tactical

a. Decision on introducing a new model

b. Scheduling production

c. Assessing competitor car

d. Computing sales tax collected

58. In motor car manufacturing the following type of information is operational

a. Decision on introducing a new model

b. Scheduling production

c. Assessing competitor car

d. Computing sales tax collected

59. In motor car manufacturing the following type of information is statutory

a. Decision on introducing a new model

b. Scheduling production

c. Assessing competitor car

d. Computing sales tax collected

60. In a hospital’s information system the following type of information is strategic

a. Opening a new children’s ward

b. Data on births and deaths

c. Preparing patients’ bill

d. Buying an expensive diagnostic system such as CAT scan

61. In a hospital’s information system the following type of information is tactical

a. Opening a new children’s’ ward

b. Data on births and deaths

c. Preparing patients’ bill

d. Buying an expensive diagnostic system such as CAT scan

62. In a hospital’s information system the following type of information is operational

a. Opening a new children’s’ ward

b. Data on births and deaths

c. Preparing patients’ bill

d. Buying an expensive diagnostic system such as CAT scan

63. In a hospital’s information system the following type of information is statutory

a. Opening a new children’s’ ward

b. Data on births and deaths

c. Preparing patients’ bill

d. Buying an expensive diagnostic system such as CAT scan

64. A computer based information system is needed because

(i) The size of organization have become large and data is massive

(ii) Timely decisions are to be taken based on available data

(iii) Computers are available

(iv) Difficult to get clerks to process data

a. (ii) and (iii)

b. (i) and (ii)

c. (i) and (iv)

d. (iii) and (iv)

65. Volume of strategic information is

a. Condensed

b. Detailed

c. Summarized

d. Irrelevant

66. Volume of tactical information is

a. Condensed

b. Detailed

c. Summarized

d. relevant

67. Volume of operational information is

a. Condensed

b. Detailed

c. Summarized

d. Irrelevant

68. Strategic information is

a. Haphazard

b. Well organized

c. Unstructured

d. Partly structured

69. Tactical information is

a. Haphazard

b. Well organized

c. Unstructured

d. Partly structured

70. Operational information is

a. Haphazard

b. Well organized

c. Unstructured

d. Partly structured

71. Match and find best pairing for a Human Resource Management System

(i) Policies on giving bonus (iv) Strategic information

(ii) Absentee reduction (v) Tactical information

(iii) Skills inventory (vi) Operational Information

a. (i) and (v)

b. (i) and (iv)

c. (ii) and (iv)

d. (iii) and (v)

72. Match and find best pairing for a Production Management System

(i) Performance appraisal of machines (iv) Strategic information to decide

on replacement

(ii) Introducing new production (v) Tactical information technology

(iii) Preventive maintenance schedules (vi) Operational information for machines

a. (i) and (vi)

b. (ii) and (v)

c. (i) and (v)

d. (iii) and (iv)

73. Match and find best pairing for a Production Management System

(i) Performance appraisal of machines (iv) Strategic information to decide on replacement

(ii)Introducing new production (v) Tactical information technology

(iii) Preventive maintenance schedules (vi) Operational information for machines

a. (iii) and (vi)

b. (i) and (iv)

c. (ii) and (v)

d. None of the above

74. Match and find best pairing for a Materials Management System

(i) Developing vendor performance (iv) Strategic information measures

(ii) Developing vendors for critical (v) Tactical information items

(iii)List of items rejected from a vendor (vi)Operational information

a. (i) and (v)

b. (ii) and (v)

c. (iii) and (iv)

d. (ii) and (vi)

75. Match and find best pairing for a Materials Management System

(i) Developing vendor performance (iv) Strategic information measures

(ii) Developing vendors for critical (v) Tactical information items

(iii) List of items rejected from a vendor (vi) Operational information

a. (i) and (iv)

b. (i) and (vi)

c. (ii) and (iv)

d. (iii) and (v)

76. Match and find best pairing for a Materials Management System

(i) Developing vendor performance (iv) Strategic information measures

(ii) Developing vendors for critical (v) Tactical information items

(iii) List of items rejected from a vendor (vi) Operational information

a. (i) and (vi)

b. (iii) and (vi)

c. (ii) and (vi)

d. (iii) and (iv)

77. Match and find best pairing for a Finance Management System

(i) Tax deduction at source report (iv) Strategic information

(ii) Impact of taxation on pricing (v) Tactical information

(iii) Tax planning (vi) Operational information

a. (i) and (v)

b. (iii) and (vi)

c. (ii) and (v)

d. (ii)) and (iv)

78. Match and find best pairing for a Finance Management System

(i) Budget status to all managers (iv) Strategic information

(ii) Method of financing (v) Tactical information

(iii) Variance between budget and (vi) Operational information expenses

a. (i) and (v)

b. (iii) and (vi)

c. (ii) and (v)

d. (ii) and (iv)

79. Match and find best pairing for a Marketing Management System

(i) Customer preferences surveys (iv) Strategic information

(ii) Search for new markets (v) Tactical information

(iii) Performance of sales outlets (vi) Operational information

a. (i) and (iv)

b. (ii) and (v)

c. (iii) and (vi)

d. (ii) and (v)

80. Match and find best pairing for a Marketing Management System

(i) Customer preferences surveys (iv) Strategic information

(ii) Search for new markets (v) Tactical information

(iii) Performance of sales outlets (vi) Operational information

a. (iii) and (iv)

b. (i) and (vi)

c. (i) and (v)

d. (iii) and (v)

81. Match and find best pairing for a Research and Development Management

System

(i) Technical collaboration decision (iv) Strategic information

(ii) Budgeted expenses Vs actuals (v) Tactical information

(iii) Proportion of budget to be (vi) Operational information allocated to various projects

a. (i) and (iv)

b. (ii) and (v)

c. (iii) and (vi)

d. (iii) and (iv)

82. Match and find best pairing for a Research and Development Management

System

(i) Technical collaboration decision (iv) Strategic information

(ii) Budgeted expenses Vs actuals (v) Tactical information

(iii) Proportion of budget to be (vi) Operational information allocated to various projects

a. (i) and (v)

b. (iii) and (v)

c. (ii) and (v)

d. (i) and (vi)

83. Organizations are divided into departments because

a. it is convenient to do so

b. each department can be assigned a specific functional responsibility

c. it provides opportunities for promotion

d. it is done by every organization

84. Organizations have hierarchical structures because

a. it is convenient to do so

b. it is done by every organization

c. specific responsibilities can be assigned for each level

d. it provides opportunities for promotions

85 Which of the following functions is the most unlikely in an insurance company.

a. Training

b. giving loans

c. bill of material

d. accounting

86. Which of the following functions is most unlikely in a university

a. admissions

b. accounting

c. conducting examination

d. marketing

87. Which of the following functions is most unlikely in a purchase section of an organization.

a. Production planning

b. order processing

c. vendor selection

d. training

88. Which is the most unlikely function of a marketing division of an organization.

a. advertising

b. sales analysis

c. order processing

d. customer preference analysis

89. Which is the most unlikely function of a finance section of a company.

a. Billing

b. costing

c. budgeting

d. labor deployment

90. The quality of information which does not hide any unpleasant information is known as

a. Complete

b. Trustworthy

c. Relevant

d. None of the above

91. The quality of information which is based on understanding user needs

a. Complete

b. Trustworthy

c. Relevant

d. None of the above

92. Every record stored in a Master file has a key field because

a. it is the most important field

b. it acts as a unique identification of record

c. it is the key to the database

d. it is a very concise field

93. The primary storage medium for storing archival data is

a. floppy disk

b. magnetic disk

c. magnetic tape

d. CD- ROM

94. Master files are normally stored in

a. a hard disk

b. a tape

c. CD – ROM

d. computer’s main memory

95. Master file is a file containing

a. all master records

b. all records relevant to the application

c. a collection of data items

d. historical data of relevance to the organization

96. Edit program is required to

a. authenticate data entered by an operator

b. format correctly input data

c. detect errors in input data

d. expedite retrieving input data

97. Data rejected by edit program are

a. corrected and re- entered

b. removed from processing

c. collected for later use

d. ignored during processing

98. Online transaction processing is used because

a. it is efficient

b. disk is used for storing files

c. it can handle random queries.

d. Transactions occur in batches

99. On-line transaction processing is used when

i) it is required to answer random queries

ii) it is required to ensure correct processing

iii) all files are available on-line

iv) all files are stored using hard disk

a. i ,ii

b. i, iii

c. ii ,iii, iv

d. i , ii ,iii

100. Off-line data entry is preferable when

i) data should be entered without error

ii) the volume of data to be entered is large

iii) the volume of data to be entered is small

iv) data is to be processed periodically

a. i, ii

b. ii, iii

c. ii, iv

d. iii, iv

101. Batch processing is used when

i) response time should be short

ii) data processing is to be carried out at periodic intervals

iii) transactions are in batches

iv) transactions do not occur periodically

a. i ,ii

b. i ,iii,iv

c. ii ,iii

d. i , ii ,iii

102. Batch processing is preferred over on-line transaction processing when

i) processing efficiency is important

ii) the volume of data to be processed is large

iii) only periodic processing is needed

iv) a large number of queries are to be processed

a. i ,ii

b. i, iii

c. ii ,iii

d. i , ii ,iii

103. A management information system is one which

a. is required by all managers of an organization

b. processes data to yield information of value in tactical management

c. provides operational information

d. allows better management of organizations

104 Data mining is used to aid in

a. operational management

b. analyzing past decision made by managers

c. detecting patterns in operational data

d. retrieving archival data

105 Data mining requires

a. large quantities of operational data stored over a period of time

b. lots of tactical data

c. several tape drives to store archival data

d. large mainframe computers

106. Data mining can not be done if

a. operational data has not been archived

b. earlier management decisions are not available

c. the organization is large

d. all processing had been only batch processing

107. Decision support systems are used for

a. Management decision making

b. Providing tactical information to management

c. Providing strategic information to management

d. Better operation of an organization

108. Decision support systems are used by

a. Line managers.

b. Top-level managers.

c. Middle level managers.

d. System users

109. Decision support systems are essential for

a. Day–to-day operation of an organization.

b. Providing statutory information.

c. Top level strategic decision making.

d. Ensuring that organizations are profitable.

MCQs Part 2

MCQs sub Part 1

1. Which phase of the SDLC are information needs identified?

a) Preliminary investigation

b) Systems analysis

c) Systems design

d) Systems development

2. In this phase of the SDLC, new or alternative information systems are designed.

a) preliminary investigation

b) systems analysis

c) systems design

d) systems development

3. In this phase of the SDLC, the new information systems are installed and adapted to the new system, and people are trained to use them.

a) preliminary implementation

b) systems analysis

c) systems design

d) systems development

4. This phase of the SDLC is known as the “ongoing phase” where the system is periodically evaluated and updated as needed.

a) Preliminary investigation

b) Systems design

c) Systems implementation

d) Systems maintenance

5. A recent survey by Money magazine determined that out of 100 widely-held jobs that they researched, the top job classification was a

a) network administrator

b) cryptographer

c) systems analyst

d) computer engineer

6. Many organizations have determined that there is a __________ -year backlog of work for systems analysts.

a) one

b) two

c) three

d) four

7. The first step in preliminary analysis is to

a) purchase supplies

b) hire consultants

c) define the problem

d) propose changes

8. In the preliminary investigation phase of the SDLC, which one of the following tasks would not be included?

a) briefly defining the problem

b) suggesting alternative solutions

c) gathering the data

d) preparing a short report

9. In order to obtain financing for the analysis phase, the systems analyst must

a) prepare a preliminary investigation report

b) justify the expense of upgrading

c) consider abandoning the project

d) train users on the new system

10. The first step of the systems analysis phase of the SDLC is to

a) propose changes

b) analyze data

c) gather data

d) write system analysis report

11. Which of the following shows levels of management and formal lines of authority?

a) organization chart

b) decision table

c) pyramid diagram

d) grid chart

12. A list of questions used in analysis is called a(n)

a) organization chart

b) interview guideline

c) grid table

d) checklist

13. What type of analysis starts with the “big picture” and then breaks it down into smaller pieces?

a) financial

b) reverse

c) top-down

d) executive

14. Which of the following is used to show the rules that apply to a decision when one or more conditions apply?

a) system flowchart

b) decision table

c) grid chart

d) checklist

15. Which of the following tools shows the data or information flow within an information system?

a) grid chart

b) decision table

c) system flowchart

d) data flow diagram

16. These software packages evaluate hardware and software alternatives according to requirements given by the systems analyst.

a) project management

b) automated design tools

c) spreadsheets

d) report generators

17. Which of the following is not found on a data flow diagram?

a) entities

b) process

c) offline storage

d) file

18. The final step of the systems analysis phase in the SDLC is to

a) gather data

b) write system analysis report

c) propose changes

d) analyze data

19. Which of the following would not be described in the systems analysis report?

a) the current information system

b) the requirements for a new system

c) the development schedule

d) the training requirements for users

20. Which of the following tasks is not part of the systems design phase?

a) designing alternative systems

b) selecting the best system

c) writing a systems design report

d) suggesting alternative solutions

21.The first task to complete in the design phase of the SDLC is to

a) design alternative systems

b) select the best design

c) examine hardware requirements

d) write a systems design report

22. After designing alternative systems, the system analyst must

a) prepare a system design report

b) diagram the system

c) prepare a data flow diagram

d) select the best alternative

23. The final task in the design phase of the SDLC is to

a) select the best design

b) design alternative systems

c) prepare a system design report

d) examine hardware requirements

24. A feasibility study is used to determine the proposed systems.

a) resource requirements

b) costs and benefits

c) availability of hardware and software

d) all of the above

25. Determining if employees, managers, and clients will resist a proposed new system is part of this feasibility study.

a) technical feasibility

b) economic feasibility

c) organizational feasibility

d) operational feasibility

26. Determining whether expected cost savings and other benefits will exceed the cost of developing an alternative system is related to

a) technical feasibility

b) economic feasibility

c) organizational feasibility

d) operational feasibility

27. The first step of systems development is to purchase or custom design

a) software

b) a network

c) hardware

d) training materials

28. The final step of development is to

a) acquire software

b) acquire hardware

c) prepare a systems development report

d) test the system

29. During which phase of the SDLC are users trained to use the new system?

a) Preliminary investigation

b) Systems implementation

c) Systems development

d) Systems maintenance

30. The first step in implementing a new system is to determine the

a) hardware requirements

b) software requirements

c) conversion type

d) best alternative

31. The __________ approach conversion type simply involves abandoning the old system and using the new.

a) direct

b) pilot

c) phased

d) parallel

32. The old and new systems run side by side for a period of time when using the __________ approach to implementation.

a) direct

b) parallel

c) phased

d) pilot

33. Although this conversion approach (__________) is considered low risk, keeping enough equipment and people active to manage two systems at the same time can be very expensive.

a) direct

b) parallel

c) phased

d) pilot

34. Using the __________ approach, a new system is tested in one part of the organization before being implemented in others.

a) direct

b) phased

c) pilot

d) parallel

35. The __________ implementation approach is broken down into smaller parts that are implemented over time.

a) pilot

b) direct

c) parallel

d) phased

36. The implementation approach that is the least risky would be the

a) direct approach

b) parallel approach

c) phased approach

d) pilot approach

37. This implementation approach (__________) is preferred when there are many people in an organization performing similar operations.

a) direct

b) parallel

c) phased

d) pilot

38. The final step of the implementation phase of the SDLC is to

a) train the users

b) develop documentation

c) select the conversion type

d) write the implementation report

39. Which of the following phases of the SDLC is considered as the “ongoing process”?

a) systems development

b) systems analysis

c) systems design

d) systems maintenance

40. The ongoing testing and analysis of an existing system is called system__________.

a) maintenance

b) implementation

c) design

d) analysis

41. During a systems audit, the system performance is compared to

a) similar systems

b) newer systems

c) the design specifications

d) competing systems

42. A modifiable model built before the actual system is installed is called a(n)

a) sample

b) example

c) template

d) prototype

43. The process of building a model that demonstrates the features of a proposed product, service or system is called a

a) JAD

b) RAD

c) template

d) prototype

44. A modifiable model of a proposed product, system, or system is called a(n)

a) prototype

b) benchmark

c) factor

d) template

45. RAD stands for

a) Redundant Array of Disks

b) Rapid Application Development

c) Remove and Destroy

d) Replication Applet Diagram

MCQs sub Part 2

1. In the relational modes, cardinality is termed as:

(A) Number of tuples

(B) Number of attributes.

(D) Number of constraints.

2. Relational calculus is a

(A) Procedural language

(B) Non- Procedural language.

(D) High level language.

3 The view of total database content is

(A) Conceptual view

(B) Internal view

(D) Physical View.

4. Cartesian product in relational algebra is

(A) a Unary operator

(B) a Binary operator

(D) not defined

5. DML is provided for

(A) Description of logical structure of database.

(B) Addition of new structures in the database system.

(C) Manipulation & processing of database.

(D) Definition of physical structure of database system.

6. ‘AS’ clause is used in SQL for

(A) Selection operation

(B) Rename operation

(D) Projection operation.

7. ODBC stands for

(A) Object Database Connectivity.

(B) Oral Database Connectivity.

(D) Open Database Connectivity.

8. Architecture of the database can be viewed as

(A) Two levels

(B) Four levels

(C) Three levels

(D) One level

9. In a relational model, relations are termed as

(A) Tuples

(B) Attributes

(C) Tables

(D) Rows.

10. The database schema is written in

(A) HLL

(B) DML

(C) DDL

(D) DCL

11. In the architecture of a database system external level is the

(A) Physical level

(B) Logical level.

(D) View level.

12. An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key is a

(A) Strong entity set

(B) Weak entity set.

(D) Primary entity set.

13. In a Hierarchical model records are organized as

(A) Graph

(B) List

(D) Tree

14. In an E-R diagram attributes are represented by

(A) Rectangle

(B) Square

(C) Ellipse

(D) Triangle.

15. In case of entity integrity, the primary key may be

(A) Not Null

(B) Null

(D) Any value.

16. In tuple relational calculus P1 ®P2 is equivalent to

(A) ¬P1 Ú P2

(B) P1 Ú P2

(D) P1 Ù¬P2

17. The language used in application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred to as the

(A) DML

(B) DDL

(D) SDL

18. A logical schema

(A) Is the entire database.

(B) Is a standard way of organizing information into accessible parts.

(D) Both (A) and (C)

19. Related fields in a database are grouped to form a

(A) Data file

(B) Data record.

(D) Bank.

20. The database environment has all of the following components except:

(A) Users

(B) Separate files.

(D) Database administrator.

21. The language which has recently become the defacto standard for interfacing application programs with relational database system is

(A) Oracle

(B) SQL.

(D) 4GL.

22. The way a particular application views the data from the database that the application uses is a

(A) module

(B) Relational model.

(D) Sub schema.

23. In an E-R diagram an entity set is represent by a

(A) rectangle

(B) Ellipse.

(D) Circle.

24. A report generator is used to

(A) Update files

(B) Print files on paper

(D) Delete files.

25. The property / properties of a database is / are :

(A) It is an integrated collection of logically related records.

(B) It consolidates separate files into a common pool of data records.

(D) All of the above.

26. The DBMS language component which can be embedded in a program is

(A) The data definition language (DDL)

(B) The data manipulation language (DML)

(D) A query language.

27. A relational database developer refers to a record as

(A) A criteria

(B) A relation.

(C) A tuple

(D) An attribute

28. The relational model feature is that there

(A) Is no need for primary key data?

(B) Is much more data independence than some other database models.

(D) Are tables with many dimensions?

29. Conceptual design

(A) Is a documentation technique.

(B) Needs data volume and processing frequencies to determine the size of the database.

(C) Involves modeling independent of the DBMS.

(D) Is designing the relational model.

30. The method in which records are physically stored in a specified order according to a key field in each record is

(A) Hash

(B) Direct.

(D) All of the above.

31. A subschema expresses

(A) The logical view

(B) The physical view.

(C) The external view

(D) All of the above.

32. Count function in SQL returns the number of

(A) Values

(B) Distinct values.

(D) Columns

33. Which one of the following statements is false?

(A) The data dictionary is normally maintained by the database administrator.

(B) Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dictionary.

(D) The data dictionary is a tool used exclusively by the database administrator.

34. An advantage of the database management approach is

(A) Data is dependent on programs.

(B) Data redundancy increases.

(C) Data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs.

(D) None of the above.

35. A DBMS query language is designed to

(A) Support end users who use English-like commands.

(B) Support in the development of complex applications software.

(D) All of the above.

36. Transaction processing is associated with everything below except

(A) Producing detail, summary, or exception reports.

(B) Recording a business activity.

(C) Confirming an action or triggering a response.

(D) Maintaining data.

37. It is possible to define a schema completely using

(A) VDL and DDL

(B) DDL and DML.

(D) VDL and DML.

38. The method of access which uses key transformation is known as

(A) Direct

(B) Hash

(D) Sequential

39. Data independence means

(A) Data is defined separately and not included in programs.

(B) Programs are not dependent on the physical attributes of data.

(D) Both (B) and (C).

40. The statement in SQL which allows changing the definition of a table is

(A) Alter

(B) Update.

(D) Select

41. E-R model uses this symbol to represent weak entity set?

(A) Dotted rectangle.

(B) Diamond

(C) Doubly outlined rectangle

(D) None of these

42. SET concept is used in:

(A) Network Model

(B) Hierarchical Model

(D) None of these

43. Relational Algebra is

(A) Data Definition Language

(B) Meta Language

(C) Procedural query Language

(D) None of the above

44. Key to represent relationship between tables is called

(A) Primary key

(B) Secondary Key

(C) Foreign Key

(D) None of these

45. _______ produces the relation that has attributes of R1 and R2

(A) Cartesian product

(B) Difference

D) Product

46. The file organization that provides very fast access to any arbitrary record of a file is

(A) Ordered file

(B) Unordered file

(C) Hashed file

(D) B-tree

47. DBMS helps achieve

(A) Data independence

(B) Centralized control of data

(D) Both (A) and (B)

48. Which of the following are the properties of entities?

(A) Groups

(B) Table

(C) Attributes

(D) Switchboards

49. In a relation

(A) Ordering of rows is immaterial

(B) No two rows are identical

(C) (A) and (B) both are true

(D) None of these.

50. Which of the following is correct?

(A) A SQL query automatically eliminates duplicates.

(B) SQL permits attribute names to be repeated in the same relation.

(D) None of these

51. It is better to use files than a DBMS when there are

(A) Stringent real-time requirements.

(B) Multiple users wish to access the data.

(D) All of the above.

52. The conceptual model is

(A) Dependent on hardware.

(B) Dependent on software.

(D) Independent of both hardware and software

53. What is a relationship called when it is maintained between two entities?

(A) Unary

(B) Binary

(D) Quaternary

54. Which of the following operation is used if we are interested in only certain columns of a table?

(A) PROJECTION

(B) SELECTION

(D) JOIN

55. Which of the following is a valid SQL type?

(A) CHARACTER

(B) NUMERIC

(D) All of the above

56. The RDBMS terminology for a row is

(A) tuple

(B) Relation.

D) Degree

57. Which of the following operations need the participating relations to be union compatible?

(A) UNION

(B) INTERSECTION

(D) All of the above

58. The full form of DDL is

(A Dynamic Data Language

(B) Detailed Data Language

(C) Data Definition Language

(D) Data Derivation Language

59. Which of the following is an advantage of view?

(A) Data security

(B) Derived columns

(D) All of the above

60. Which of the following is a legal expression in SQL?

(A) SELECT NULL FROM EMPLOYEE;

(B) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE;

(D) None of the above

61. The users who use easy-to-use menu are called

(A) Sophisticated end users

(B) Naïve users.

(D) Casual end users.

62. Which database level is closest to the users?

(A) External

(B) Internal

(D) Conceptual

63. Which are the two ways in which entities can participate in a relationship?

(A) Passive and active

(B) Total and partial

(D) All of the above

64. The result of the UNION operation between R1 and R2 is a relation that includes

(A) All the tuples of R1

(B) All the tuples of R2

(D) All the tuples of R1 and R2 which have common columns

65. A set of possible data values is called

(A) Attribute

(B) Degree

(D) Domain

66. Which of the operations constitute a basic set of operations for manipulating relational data?

(A) Predicate calculus

(B) Relational calculus

(C) Relational algebra

(D) None of the above

67. Which of the following is another name for weak entity?

(A) Child

(B) Owner

(D) All of the above

68. Which of the following database object does not physically exist?

(A) Base table

(B) Index

(C) View

(D) None of the above

69. NULL is

(A) The same as 0 for integer

(B) The same as blank for character

(D) Not a value

70. Which of the following is record based logical model?

(A) Network Model

(B) Object oriented model

(D) None of these

71. A data dictionary is a special file that contains:

(A) The name of all fields in all files.

(B) The width of all fields in all files.

(D) All of the above

72. A file manipulation command that extracts some of the records from a file is called

(A) SELECT

(B) PROJECT

(D) PRODUCT

73. The physical location of a record is determined by a mathematical formula that transforms a file key into a record location is:

(A) B-Tree File

(B) Hashed File

(D) Sequential file.

74. A primary key is combined with a foreign key creates

(A) Parent-Child relation ship between the tables that connect them.

(B) Many to many relationship between the tables that connect them.

(D) None of the above.

75. In E-R Diagram derived attribute are represented by

(A) Ellipse

(B) Dashed ellipse

(D) Triangle

76. Cross Product is a:

(A) Unary Operator

(B) Ternary Operator

(C) Binary Operator

(D) Not an operator

77. An instance of relational schema R (A, B, C) has distinct values of A including NULL values. Which one of the following is true?

(A) A is a candidate key

(B) A is not a candidate key

(D) Both (A) and (C)

78. Consider the join of a relation R with relation S. If R has m tuples and S has n tuples, then the maximum size of join is:

(A) mn

(B) m+n

(D) 2(m+n)

79. The natural join is equal to:

(A) Cartesian Product

(B) Combination of Union and Cartesian product

(D) Combination of projection and Cartesian product

80. Which one of the following is not true for a view:

(A) View is derived from other tables.

(B) View is a virtual table.

(C) A view definition is permanently stored as part of the database.

(D) View never contains derived columns.

81. A primary key if combined with a foreign key creates

(A) Parent-Child relationship between the tables that connect them.

(B) Many to many relationship between the tables that connect them.

(D) None of the above.

82. In E-R Diagram relationship type is represented by

(A) Ellipse

(B) Dashed ellipse

(D) Diamond

83. Hierarchical model is also called

(A) Tree structure

(B) Plex Structure

(D) Table Structure

84. To delete a particular column in a relation the command used is:

(A) UPDATE

(B) DROP

(C) ALTER

(D) DELETE

85. The ______ operator is used to compare a value to a list of literals values that have been specified.

(A) BETWEEN

(B) ANY

(D) ALL

86. A logical schema

A) Is the entire database

B) Is a standard way of organizing information into a accessible part

C) Describe how data is actually stored on disk

D) None of these

87. A B-tree of order m has maximum of _____________ children

(A) m

(B) m+1

(D) m/2

88. _____________ function divides one numeric expression by another and returns the remainder.

(A) POWER

(B) MOD

(D) REMAINDER

89. A data manipulation command the combines the records from one or more tables is called

(A) SELECT

(B) PROJECT

(C) JOIN

(D) PRODUCT

90. In E-R diagram generalization is represented by

(A) Ellipse

(B) Dashed ellipse

(D) Triangle

91. _________ is a virtual table that draws its data from the result of an SQL SELECT statement.

(A) View

(B) Synonym

(D) Transaction

92. The method of access which uses key transformation is known as

(A) Direct

(B) Hash

(D) Sequential

93. A table joined with it is called

(A) Join

(B) Self Join

(D) Equal Join

1. The accounting department records all financial transactions.
Answer: True

2. The human resources department manages the hiring, firing, and training of a company’s personnel.
Answer: True

3. The research department handles all aspects of promotion.
Answer: False

4. The production department creates the finished goods.
Answer: True

5. Supervisor-level management deals with control, planning and decision making.
Answer: False

6. Middle management monitors day-to-day operations.
Answer: False

7. Top managerial-level information flow is predominately vertical.
Answer: False

8. Middle-managerial level information flow is both vertical and horizontal.
Answer: True

9. The transaction processing system relies on information provided by the management information system.
Answer: False

10. The decision support system combines internal and external information to help analyze a wide range of problems.
Answer: True

11. A weekly production schedule is one report likely to be generated from a management information system.
Answer: True

12. “ESS” stands for Executive Simplified Summary.
Answer: False

13. Executive support systems are designed to be easy to use.
Answer: True

14. The sales order processing activity records the customer requests for goods or services.
Answer: True

15. The accounts receivable activity records money received from or owed by customers.
Answer: True

16. The parts and finished goods that a company has in stock are called surplus.
Answer: False

17. Purchasing is the buying of materials and services.
Answer: True

18. Accounts payable is concerned with calculating employee paychecks.
Answer: False

19. The general ledger refers to money the company owes.
Answer: False

20. Income statements show a company’s financial performance.
Answer: True

21. A balance sheet is an example of a demand report.
Answer: False

22. A periodic report is created at set intervals.
Answer: True

23. An exception report calls attention to unusual events.
Answer: True

24. Team decisions can be facilitated by the use of a GDSS.
Answer: True

25. In general, the user of a GDSS is some sort of decision maker.
Answer: True

26. The system software provides a GDSS with its decision-making capabilities.
Answer: False

27. The data component of a GDSS is stored in the system software.
Answer: False

28. There are three basic decision models used in a GDSS: operational, strategic, and financial.
Answer: False

29. Top-level management is most concerned with strategic planning.
Answer: True

30. The strategic decision model assists in long-range planning.
Answer: True

31. The operation decision model helps to accomplish the organization’s day-to-day activities.
Answer: True

32. Employees who distribute, create, and communicate information are called e-workers.
Answer: False

33. Knowledge workers create information.
Answer: True

34. An office automation system consists of multifunctional robots.
Answer: False

35. Knowledge workers use specialized information systems called KWS to create information in their area of expertise.
Answer: True

36. CAD/CAM systems allow people located at various locations to have “in-person” meetings.
Answer: False

37. CAD/CAM systems use powerful microcomputers running special programs that integrate the design and manufacturing activities.
Answer: True

38. Videoconferencing systems allow people located at various locations to have “in-person” meetings.
Answer: True

39. CAD/CAM systems are widely used in the processing of perishable products.
Answer: False

CHAPTER 2 -

2.1 Data Base Management Systems: Concept – Relational Model Applications – DBMS Architecture

2.2 Systems Engineering Analysis and Design: Systems Concept - Systems Development Life Cycle - Assessing Enterprise Information requirements – Alternative System Building Approaches - Prototyping - Rapid Development Tools – CASE Tools – Object Oriented Systems (Only introduction to these tools & techniques)

CHAPTER 3 -

Decision Support Systems: Data Warehousing and Data Mining -Business Intelligence and Analytics - Group Decision Support Systems – Executive Information Systems - Executive Support Systems – Geographical Information Systems - Expert Systems and Knowledge Based Expert Systems – Artificial Intelligence

CHAPTER 4 –

4.1 Digital firm Perspective: MIS Model for a digital firm – Organization Structure for digital firm – e-Business Models and Applications – Mobile computing, Call Centers, BPO

4.2 Management Issues in MIS: Information Security and Control - Quality Assurance -Ethical and Social Dimensions - Intellectual Property Rights as related to IT Services / IT Products

CHAPTER 5 –

Applications of MIS in functional areas as well as in the service sector should be covered with the help of minimum 5 case studies.

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